Hi,
I read the recent ESL article in respect of the gap between performances related to gender. (ie girls outperforming boys significantly ... there's plenty on the subject out there). Recently I was told that this gap is specific to the UK and does not occur in other (non-specific) countries. It was impossible for me to put the case against it because I simply do not know; have not heard this argument before so I wonder whether anyone could point me in the direction of information or add something concrete to the debate, especially if you're from another country where this occurs.
Thanks and best wishes,
Vera